mavuser
Enlightened Member
Happy New Year, all!! I was looking at some things and came accross this product from Morely:
www.sweetwater.com
whats funny is, my current pedal board that I came up with myself, has the same effects, in the same order. the only difference is, this unit has an FX Loop. I am somewhat/mostly clear on the how and why an FX loop works in a higher gain amp... but my question is, speaking in terms of mono (not stereo)...with this Morley unit, it has an FX Loop built in...so what is the difference between placing a volume pedal in the FX loop of the Morely, and placing a volume pedal in my pedal chain after the overdrive/distortion pedal, and before the chorus/delay pedals? is it basically the same thing...so the point of the Morely is to have their unit, which can be used alone...but u can also use it with other pedals in proper fashion?? or does the FX loop acomplish something specific that you could not do with pedals only? do all of my pedals have extra pre-amps?...whearas the Morely only has one pre-amp?
also, separate question, in the Sweetwater demo video, the second guy w the orange amp says to run the send from the Morely FX loop into the main input on the orange amp, then out the send of the FX loop in the orange amp back into the return of the Morely FX loop, then out of the main output of the Morey, back into return of the FX loop on the Orange amp. why would he want the preamp of the orange amp after the distortion/gain stage of the Morely? does that not negate the point of having an FX loop on the Orange amp in the first place? and influence the tone of the Morely distortion, as it would if the amp did not have an FX loop? Or if is his Orange amp is super clean with tons of headroom, would it benefit him to have distortion pedal before the Orange preamp, and then volume/chorus/delay in the FX loop...as opposed to the distortion in the effects loop? If the Orange amp has distortion/overdrive/crunch...what he is doing would not seem to make sense.
why doesn't he want to simply use the Morely FX loop internally (if he has more pedals), and then plug the output of the Morley straight into the return of the FX loop on the Orange?
thanks for any insight!
Morley AFX-1 Analog Multi-effects Pedal
All-analog Multi-effects unit with Wah, Distortion, Chorus, Delay, Stereo Outputs, and FX Loop
www.sweetwater.com
whats funny is, my current pedal board that I came up with myself, has the same effects, in the same order. the only difference is, this unit has an FX Loop. I am somewhat/mostly clear on the how and why an FX loop works in a higher gain amp... but my question is, speaking in terms of mono (not stereo)...with this Morley unit, it has an FX Loop built in...so what is the difference between placing a volume pedal in the FX loop of the Morely, and placing a volume pedal in my pedal chain after the overdrive/distortion pedal, and before the chorus/delay pedals? is it basically the same thing...so the point of the Morely is to have their unit, which can be used alone...but u can also use it with other pedals in proper fashion?? or does the FX loop acomplish something specific that you could not do with pedals only? do all of my pedals have extra pre-amps?...whearas the Morely only has one pre-amp?
also, separate question, in the Sweetwater demo video, the second guy w the orange amp says to run the send from the Morely FX loop into the main input on the orange amp, then out the send of the FX loop in the orange amp back into the return of the Morely FX loop, then out of the main output of the Morey, back into return of the FX loop on the Orange amp. why would he want the preamp of the orange amp after the distortion/gain stage of the Morely? does that not negate the point of having an FX loop on the Orange amp in the first place? and influence the tone of the Morely distortion, as it would if the amp did not have an FX loop? Or if is his Orange amp is super clean with tons of headroom, would it benefit him to have distortion pedal before the Orange preamp, and then volume/chorus/delay in the FX loop...as opposed to the distortion in the effects loop? If the Orange amp has distortion/overdrive/crunch...what he is doing would not seem to make sense.
why doesn't he want to simply use the Morely FX loop internally (if he has more pedals), and then plug the output of the Morley straight into the return of the FX loop on the Orange?
thanks for any insight!
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